The Judgment of Satan
And the devil, who deceived them, was cast into the lake of fire and brimstone where the beast and the false prophet are. And they will be tormented day and night forever and ever (Rev. 20:10).
Although the Book of Revelation contains figurative and symbolic descriptions, no one doubts that this passage portrays the devil finally getting what he deserves for centuries of deception. But when does this event occur? Almost all views of Revelation place this passage at the end of earth's history—except for the full preterist view and those who imagine that this verse is only figurative. Consider this concept first.
Figurative
Of course, the Book of Revelation is a treatise filled with symbolic language; even the numbers are not usually literal; they represent strength (2), God (3), strife and turmoil (3½), the earth (4), the devil (6), perfection (7), etc. But just because a great deal of the book is figurative does not mean that everything is. In Revelation 20:9, for example, fire is going to come down out of heaven and devour the enemies of God. Is that only figurative language? It might be, but it was literal in 2 Kings 1:9-12 when two captains with their fifty men were consumed by fire from heaven.
Having this literal example does not by itself prove that the fire in Revelation 20:9 is not figurative, since several literal events are used afterwards as symbols. However, taken with the rest of New Testament teaching, there is no reason to think that the fire represents something else. 2 Thessalonians 1:7-8 teaches that, when Jesus is revealed from heaven with His mighty angels in flaming fire, He will take vengeance on those who know not God or obey not the gospel. Presumably, His faithful will already have come forth from the graves and ascended to safety to be with Jesus when this action occurs (1 Thess. 4:13-18). Not only shall those on earth be destroyed with literal fire; so will the earth and the heavens themselves (2 Peter 3:10-13). Thus, there is no reason to doubt that the fire in Revelation 20:9 is one that burns.
That being said, why would the Lake of Fire and Brimstone not be an equivalent torture for a spirit-being? If it is not literal torture for the devil, then what is it? Is there such a thing as "symbolic" torture? No. This lake is a place of torment for the devil and those who follow him—the cowardly, unbelieving, abominable, murderers, sexually immoral, sorcerers, idolaters, and all liars (Rev. 21:8). These are also described as anyone not found written in the Book of Life (Rev. 20:15). Even death and Hades are cast into the Lake of Fire (Rev. 20:14). Are we to believe, then, that all of this is figurative language? For what? No, the judgment of Satan is real and actual, as is his punishment.
When?
The only other question to consider is the time of such an event. When does it occur? Most students of the Word, having studied all of the passages already mentioned, along with John 5:28-29, understand that this event occurs when Jesus returns for His own sheep and destroys the world. But some who hold the preterist view believe that Revelation 20:10-15 has already occurred!
The preterist view teaches that the greater part of the book of Revelation (chapters 4-19) occurred before the end of the first century. In other words, the majority of the events in Revelation were fulfilled in AD 70. Believers in full preterism (Realized Eschatology) believe that everything in the prophetic book has been fulfilled, which includes Revelation 20:10. But how is that possible? Are there more than three choices? No. The only three are: 1) a figurative interpretation, 2) at AD 70, or 3) at the end of the world. No one (to this writer's knowledge) has suggested a time in between.
Implications
Most are in agreement that the world will be judged when our Lord returns, but if the AD 70 adherents are correct, the position raises several questions. If Satan were judged at the time Jerusalem was destroyed, then who has been causing people to sin for the past 19½ centuries? According to Revelation 20:10, he has been out of commission and suffering since that time. So why does sin still exist? Even those who hold to the figurative explanation admit that the devil has been utterly defeated. If that is so, then what is he still doing on the playing field? The contest is over, and Satan lost. He has been vanquished. Therefore, he can have no more influence on the world.
Revelation 20:10 specifically describes him as the one who deceived everyone. Who has taken over his job? He is described earlier in Revelation 12:9, where he is called "the great dragon," the devil, and Satan, who deceives the whole world. A present active participle is used to describe the evil one. A deceiver is what he has always been and always will be until God determines that his time is over.
In fact, the Bible is symmetrical with respect to Satan. He is introduced in the third chapter of the Bible, where he deceived Eve. He denied the validity of the commandment God had given to the first couple. He assured Eve she would not surely die if she ate the forbidden fruit (Gen. 3:4-6). His explanation was calculated to persuade her. He told her that eating the fruit would make her like God. Thus Satan began his influence over man and continued in the same vein. Jesus called him a liar and the father of lies (John 8:44). In the third from the last chapter, God stops him.
Satan's influence is over, but was he judged in AD 70? If so, then why are people continually deceived? Will someone argue that his work has been taken up by another? If so, who? And why would God punish Satan and then let him be replaced by another? Is there some prophecy of such a switch? No. Remember that all who followed Satan were allegedly judged in AD 70 also. So if the tempter was removed from the world, as well as those who love to practice sin, then who was left to lead the world back into sin again?
The answer is, "No one," because Satan remains active until the Day of Judgment. Consider how many Scriptures become invalid and meaningless if the AD 70 people are correct. Jesus taught His disciples to pray, "And do not lead us into temptation, but deliver us from the evil one" (Matt. 5:13a). The evil one is clearly Satan, but if he was judged in AD 70, we do not need to pray for that or to fear ever being tempted again. Does such a position square with reality?
Jesus told Peter that Satan had asked for him, to sift him like wheat (Luke 22:31). But now Satan has been judged (according to Realized Eschatology); so none of us have to face a problem like this one. The struggle is apparently over, which implies that no one can sin any more. So why do we keep hearing on the radio and on the television about atrocities being committed? Who is behind all those evils if the devil has been decommissioned?
Paul told the Corinthians that God would not allow them to be tempted beyond what they are able to bear (1 Cor. 10:13). This Scripture was probably written 13 years before Satan was "judged"; if we are still being tempted, who is the tempter today? A comforting assurance is found in Hebrews 2:18: "For in that He Himself has suffered, being tempted, He is able to aid those who are tempted." Do we no longer need Divine help to overcome sin in our lives?
Paul's admonition in Galatians 6:1 has become passé. Paul commanded that wayward brethren be restored in a spirit of gentleness, lest the one doing the restoring be tempted. The good news is that we can no longer be tempted in correcting a brother; the questionable news is that if Satan has already been judged, no brother can be overtaken in a trespass.
On one occasion Paul was greatly concerned about the strength of the brethren in Thessalonica. He was afraid that "by some means the tempter had tempted" them, which would mean that his labors would have been in vain. But Paul could rest easy when he died about AD 68. Satan would be destroyed two years after that, and then there would be no tempter to tempt the brethren. How many passages in the New Testament deal with false teachers? Paul said that he warned brethren in Ephesus day and night with tears concerning savage wolves who would rise up, even from among themselves to draw away disciples after themselves (Acts 20:28-31). But such a thing is no longer possible.
Sin
If the tempter is out of business, why would anyone have any sins for which to be forgiven? Why should anyone be baptized to have sins removed when he has none to take away (Acts 22:16)? Why would we need to be "a new creature" if we were never an old one (Rom. 6:3-5)? How can we be washed, sanctified, and justified (1 Cor. 6:9-11) if we have never been contaminated in the first place? Every warning against sin and every exhortation to be holy has become frivolous—if Satan was judged in AD 70. Only sin separates people from God (Isa. 59:1-2); how can such a situation possibly exist in a world without Satan?
Now someone will surely respond by saying, "You silly goose! Of course, sin still exists! Can't you see its results daily?" Yes, and it is not difficult. But that is precisely the point: How can all the sin we all observe exist apart from Satan to deceive people? How do we explain it? If he has already been judged and rendered ineffective, how is it that sin thrives?
Does not this AD 70 position imply Universalism? If not, why not? Satan has been cast into the Lake of Fire. Without a tempter, mankind does not sin. Eve did not sin in the Garden of Eden—until Satan tempted her. If Satan has had no influence since AD 70, then mankind has not sinned, which means we have no sins to be removed, which means each and every individual shall be saved. Damnation, then, would be just a matter of being born at the wrong time. Those born from the creation of the world to the age of accountability in A. D. 70 would be lost if they did not repent of their sins, but those born since that time are all saved since they have never had any sins. Really?
There is one other way for men to need salvation today if Satan has never tempted them—and that is through the doctrine of "original sin." Is that what the AD 70 brethren want to argue—that we are born with sin? What other way is there to have sin except through inheritance—without the deceiver of all mankind? If we only have two choices—either inherited sin or no sin at all—then we are indeed left with two erroneous systems to account for the sin that we see all around us. Or will the AD 70 brethren choose to deny reality the way that "Christian Scientists" do?
Is there a need for the AD 70 folks to observe the Lord's Supper, since Jesus died for our sins, and (for all we know) nobody has committed a sin? The implications of their doctrine are serious. If Satan is to be judged in the future at the Day of Judgment, then everything makes sense. But if he was judged in AD 70 and cast into the Lake of Fire and Brimstone at that time, we have the huge problem of determining how it is possible for human beings to commit sin. Who is the deceiver now, or must we revise the meaning of numerous verses of the Bible? The AD 70 crowd owes the rest of us an explanation concerning this subject, and we cannot wait to hear it. If none is forthcoming, then all must regard their doctrine as false.