Praying to Jesus: A Review (Part 3)
Jesus and Stephen
In an effort to get the reader to think that Stephen prayed to Jesus, Hallenbeck tries to make the first martyr\u u2019s situation parallel to what Jesus did on the cross. In so doing, he walks all the way around the barn, but the two circumstances are not identical (although being put to death is a common element). The main problem (but not the only one) Hallenbeck has is that no reputable translation says that Stephen "prayed." Only the RSV, the NIV, and McCord mistranslate the text, which is literally rendered, "calling on and saying." Changing the meaning of the Greek words to "praying" is a matter of interpretation—not translation (52).
It is true that the text does not say that Jesus prayed while on the cross, although we believe that He did. In both cases, the rendering of the Greek words used is "said" (Luke 23:34, 46). Interestingly, no one felt compelled to translate the Greek as "prayed" for Jesus—not even the NIV or the RSV. Why are people so compelled to insist that Stephen prayed? Is it because it is not as obvious as Jesus’ statements? Apparently, we need help to think Stephen prayed. Hallenbeck, McCord, and others are only too willing to help us draw that conclusion.
What, therefore, is the difference between what Jesus did and what Stephen did? We believe that Jesus prayed on the cross because in both instances He addressed the Father. One can hear the reply: "Right, and Stephen addressed Jesus." Here is the difference. Jesus did not have a vision of the Father (at least, none is recorded). No account is given of Him looking up to Heaven and seeing the glory of God. Our Lord knew, however, that the Father was observing all that had happened; so He prayed (briefly) to Him. On the other hand, we read the following concerning Stephen:
But he, being full of the Holy Spirit, gazed into heaven and saw the glory of God, and Jesus standing at the right hand of God, and said, "Look! I see the heavens opened and the Son of Man standing at the right hand of God!" (Acts 7:55-56).
Some refer to this description as a vision, but the text does not call it that. Did his persecutors look up and see Jesus, also? The text does not say. Did Jesus disappear as they cast Stephen out of the city? The text does not say so. The fact that Stephen addressed Him suggests that he continued to see Him standing at the right hand of God. In Acts 9:1-6, Saul of Tarsus would have a conversation with Jesus. Here Stephen addresses Him as one of His faithful followers because he can see Him. Any time any of us sees Jesus, we surely have the liberty to speak to Him or to make a request of Him. However, this kind of personal contact is not typical of our usual prayer life, is it?
Of Interest
This controversy aside, it is important to note how much Stephen reflected the actions and attitudes of His Savior. Both said essentially two of the same things. What Jesus said first was what Stephen said last.
Jesus: "Father, forgive them, for they do not know what they do" (Luke 23:34).
Stephen: "Lord, do not charge them with this sin" (Acts 7:60).
And what Jesus said last, Stephen said first.
Jesus: "Father, into Your hands I commit My spirit" (Luke 23:46).
Stephen: "Lord Jesus, receive my spirit" (Acts 7:59).
Although the substance of the two statements is equivalent, Jesus’ words were in the form of a prayer, and Stephen’s were a direct address to the Lord. It is easy to see why someone might think Stephen was praying; only the situation each was in makes the difference.
Singing to the Lord
One of the recurring ideas of Hallenbeck’s book is that if we can sing praises to Jesus, we can therefore pray to Him—as if both actions are one and the same, which is not true. He will make a case for that later, but first he claims the following:
We are commanded to sing ("ado") to "one another"; sing to "God"; and sing to the "Lord [Jesus]" (Ephesians 5:19; Colossians 3:16). As will be noted later, often worship of the early Christians consisted of singing petitions directed to Christ that were prayers (54).
Unless those early Christians are in the New Testament, even if he does produce such lyrics, it does not prove anything other than some Christians did it. Men are not our authority unless they corroborate what the New Testament teaches. For example. We point out that instruments of music were not introduced (and kept) for more than 1,000 years after the establishment of the church. Such a statement simply confirms what the New Testament teaches—that Christians sang. The lack of accompaniment in the New Testament continues to persist, which is significant.
On the other hand, if the New Testament authorized singing with instruments (which it does not), what would their absence prove? It would only demonstrate that Christians were not following the New Testament. The same thing is true of singing: if early Christians sang prayers to Jesus, then they are not following the New Testament pattern.
Since he brought up Ephesians 5:19 and Colossians 3:16, let us examine those verses. In the first of these, Paul exhorts the Ephesians to speak "to one another in psalms and hymns and spiritual songs, singing and making melody in the heart to the Lord." Does the Lord refer to the Father or Jesus? Granted, Lord refers to Jesus most of the time—especially in light of the fact that God the Father and Lord (referring to Jesus) are differentiated in Ephesians 4:4-6.
However, there are exceptions to Lord referring to Jesus, as evidenced by His own illustration in Matthew 22:41-46. He asked His critics how it was that the Son of David (referring to Himself) was called, "Lord?" Quoting Psalm 110:1, He said, "The LORD said to my Lord, ‘Sit at My right hand, till I make Your enemies Your footstool.’" Obviously one usage of Lord refers to the Father, and the other refers to the Son.
Likewise, God can refer to either the Father or Jesus, as evidenced by Hebrews 1:8: "But to the Son He says, ‘Your throne, O God, is forever and ever…." The latter part of Hebrews 1:9 says: "‘Therefore God, Your God, had anointed You with the oil of gladness more than Your companions.’" Most understand that the passage is dealing with God the Father and God the Son, both of whom are designated God.
Therefore, we ask, "To whom does the Lord refer in Ephesians 5:19?" Verse 20 appears to answer the question. It completes the thought of verse 19: "giving thanks always for all things to God the Father in the name of our Lord Jesus Christ." If the Lord of verse 19 is not the God of verse 20, then the two verses leave us in a state of confusion.
The same thing is true of Colossians 3:16-17, which is a parallel passage to Ephesians 5:19-20. There we read that Christians are to teach and admonish "one another in psalms and hymns and spiritual songs, singing with grace in your hearts to the Lord." The next verse states what we call the authority principle—doing "all in the name of the Lord Jesus, giving thanks to God the Father through Him." These passages form part of the thesis of this book review—that we go to the Father through Jesus. These two passages that Hallenbeck cited actually work against his position.
Psalm 102:25-27
Has someone denied that Jesus is worthy of praise and worship? Do we not all constantly point out to Jehovah’s Witnesses that Jesus accepting worship demonstrates He is God? Yes, so why are those who affirm that prayer ought to be directed to the Father often accused of denying Jesus the honor He deserves? This is a straw man argument that Wayne Jackson and Andrew Hallenbeck both continually employ in their writings. Anyone who does not believe Jesus is worthy of praise would have to expunge Revelation 5 from the Bible. Since we do not deny the worthiness of Jesus, it would be nice not to be accused of it directly or by implication.
On page 56, Hallenbeck says that psalms are to be sung and that Psalm 102 was therefore sung. He claims that the psalm is "addressed to Christ (102:25-27; cf. Hebrews 1:10-12)" and that it is a "prayer" (102:1). In fact, it does begin, "Hear my prayer, O Lord, and let my cry come to you." But why would the Bible student look at the first verse and conclude, "This psalm is addressed to Jesus"?
When we look at Psalm 100, do we draw a similar conclusion? It begins:
Make a joyful shout to the Lord, all you lands! Serve the Lord with gladness;
Come before His presence with singing.
Know that the Lord, He is God (100:1-3a).
Do we look at these verses and conclude, "Oh, this must refer to Jesus"? There is no compelling reason to suspect that the shouting, the serving, the singing, and the knowing that the Lord is God pertains to Jesus. Likewise, In Psalm 101:1, when David says that he will sing praises to the Lord, no one concludes, "These words imply Jesus is being addressed." When David wrote in Psalm 103:1, "Bless the Lord, O my soul; and all that is within me, bless His holy name!" no one immediately envisions Jesus. So why make this statement about Psalm 102?
Oh, yes, verses 25-27 do involve Jesus. However, although David wrote it down, the very verses cited in Hebrews 1:10-12 say that it is God Who is speaking to Jesus! One needs to back up to verse 8. "But to the Son He says," and the quote follows. To whom does the pronoun He refer if not to the Father? Verses 8-9 comprise one quote and verses 10-12 another. God is the One speaking to Jesus. We might not know that just from reading Psalm 102, but the text of Hebrews 1:8-12 makes it clear. Psalm 102 does not authorize praying to Jesus.
1 Timothy 1:12
On page 56 Hallenbeck also asks: "If we are to only thank the Father, why, then, did Paul "thank" Jesus (1 Timothy 1:12). As already shown, we are to give thanks to the Father through Jesus (Eph. 5:20; Col. 3:17). Yet, Paul, the author of those two verses, said that he thanked Jesus for putting him into the ministry. But remember Jesus chose Paul and had a personal conversation with Him. Why would Paul not thank Him?
Paul and Stephen had something in the first century that Christians today do not—firsthand, direct experience with Jesus. This difference must be taken into account in events that occur and are described, as well as what Paul writes. Some seem to think that what is described there will continue, just as some erroneously think that the Holy Spirit is still guiding us into all truth (John 16:12-13). That was a promise made to the apostles and fulfilled in the first century. Of course, since Hallenbeck consulted with Weylan Deaver, maybe he has a different view than the remainder of us.